Kim's Reformation Day Post got me thinking: what exactly does this mean and how do we know it from Scripture?

IV. The almighty power, unsearchable wisdom, and infinite goodness of God so far manifest themselves in his providence, that it extendeth itself even to the first fall, and all other sins of angels and men; and that not by a bare permission, but such as hath joined with it a most wise and powerful bounding, and otherwise ordering, and governing of them, in a manifold dispensation, to his own holy ends; yet so, as the sinfulness thereof proceedeth only from the creature, and not from God, who, being most holy and righteous, neither is nor can be the author or approver of sin.

From: The Westminster Confession of Faith, Chapter V: Of Providence

This excerpt is saying God not only permits our sin but is so in control of it that he guides it wisely and powerfully for his own holy ends yet is without blame. The Bible tells us that God does not tempt man, man is only tempted when his own wicked desires entice him.

So, I ask you, what exactly does this mean and how do we know it from Scripture?

All thoughts are welcome.